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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 20.06.2025 18:05

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Do you think a lot of sociopaths' parents kill themselves for having brought such disgusting evil into the world? How much shame and disgust must they carry?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What are 10 interesting facts about you?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

There's no rule.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.